Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 18:04

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
How Apple Created a Custom iPhone Camera for ‘F1’ - WIRED
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What are some photos of female sexual organs?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Iusto et ipsum nesciunt est qui.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.